Is the OT polytheistic?

[Questatement]

The sheer complexity of the task is reason enough to believe that Moses was not educated enough to understand and translate these plaques. Considering the events of his childhood, he probably didn't know Hebrew either.

So being raised by his Hebrew mother in the role of nurse maid/nanny wouldn't have lent to Moses knowing Hebrew? Do you guys even read the bible before opening mouth, inserting foot?

Also, if these cuneiform tablets were handed down from Adam to Joseph and considered by this family line as divine writings, don't you think they would have passed on the understanding of Sumerian, cuneiform script to their descendants and/or a remnant of the Hebrews after Joseph?

Lastly, there's no getting around the fact that Genesis is written with the same format as Sumerian, cuneiform tablets, even if it is the only example of what we would consider a modern, narrative style from this time period.

Maybe it's just me but I would presume that God would know and use this most efficient style long before man would come to a common usage of it... perhaps God's early writings even leading the way for modern man's usage by example.

[Questatement]

I did quote you...

The Septuagint was a Greek translation from the Hebrew of that time (The Masoretic, as evidenced by the Dead Sea scrolls) for the non-Hebrew speaking people of Christendom starting in the 1st century and continuing with improved accuracy into the 3rd century. That there were translation errors should not surprise anyone. However, it has no reflection upon the original integrity of the original Hebrew writings of these books.

But your quote claims it was an valid example, this "Christian sect", preserving God's word accurately. Are you now saying it was NOT an example of God's preservation?

Personally, I don't see your paraphrase of my point as anything close to accurate and if you're going to use these silly tactics of attempting to put words in my mouth that I never said, I may choose to not respond to you.

No skin off my teeth either way.

[sthack99]

So being raised by his Hebrew mother in the role of nurse maid/nanny wouldn't have lent to Moses knowing Hebrew? Do you guys even read the bible before opening mouth, inserting foot?

Moses was not raised by his Hebrew mother. He was raised by Pharaoh's daughter, who adopted him once he no longer needed to be nursed by his biological mother. No where does it mention that his biological mother played any role in his upbringing after that.

[Anguspure]

Moses was not raised by his Hebrew mother. He was raised by Pharaoh's daughter, who adopted him once he no longer needed to be nursed by his biological mother. No where does it mention that his biological mother played any role in his upbringing after that.

If you would actually bother to read the story, the whole story, it would be healthy for this part of the debate. Your ignorance serves no purpose.

[Questatement]

Moses was not raised by his Hebrew mother. He was raised by Pharaoh's daughter, who adopted him once he no longer needed to be nursed by his biological mother. No where does it mention that his biological mother played any role in his upbringing after that.

I never said Moses was 'raised' by his biological mother, I said the she was his nurse maid and nanny as evidence by Pharaoah's dauther asking Moses' mother to 'take the baby away' at least until he was nursed, most likely at the age of three.

Breastfeeding and the Bible

By age three, lauguage development is well on it's way.

Here, even before leaving Egypt for Midian, Moses has a detailed conversation with two Hebrew slaves who, I highly doubt, knew any other language besides Hebrew.

Exodus 2

The next day he went out and saw two Hebrews fighting. He asked the one in the wrong, “Why are you hitting your fellow Hebrew?” The man said, “Who made you ruler and judge over us? Are you thinking of killing me as you killed the Egyptian?”

Either way, Moses not only knew Hebrew well by the time he started writing, it can be theorized that Moses 'invented' Biblical Hebrew as an improverd version over Paleo Hebrew or any of the other Semitic variations of the day.

Come to think of it, I don't even know why I'm debating such silliness.

[sthack99]

I never said Moses was 'raised' by his biological mother, I said the she was his nurse maid and nanny as evidence by Pharaoah's dauther asking Moses' mother to 'take the baby away' at least until he was nursed, most likely at the age of three.

Breastfeeding and the Bible

By age three, lauguage development is well on it's way.

Here, even before leaving Egypt for Midian, Moses has a detailed conversation with two Hebrew slaves who, I highly doubt, knew any other language besides Hebrew.

Exodus 2


Either way, Moses not only knew Hebrew well by the time he started writing, it can be theorized that Moses 'invented' Biblical Hebrew as an improverd version over Paleo Hebrew or any of the other Semitic variations of the day.

Come to think of it, I don't even know why I'm debating such silliness.

I was just wondering where you came up with the theory that Moses was influenced by his biological mother, is all. Or that she had any hand at raising him (other than nursing him). I'm not disputing that he may have known Hebrew; however, I don't think his biological mother nursing him is evidence of that, nor is him speaking with his fellow Hebrews evidence, since they could easily have learned Egyptian in the hundreds of years they lived there. In fact, I'm sure the Pharaoh would have required it, as I doubt he would have forced his own people to learn Hebrew just to accommodate the Israelites.

[lsbskins1]

So being raised by his Hebrew mother in the role of nurse maid/nanny wouldn't have lent to Moses knowing Hebrew? Do you guys even read the bible before opening mouth, inserting foot?

Also, if these cuneiform tablets were handed down from Adam to Joseph and considered by this family line as divine writings, don't you think they would have passed on the understanding of Sumerian, cuneiform script to their descendants and/or a remnant of the Hebrews after Joseph?

Lastly, there's no getting around the fact that Genesis is written with the same format as Sumerian, cuneiform tablets, even if it is the only example of what we would consider a modern, narrative style from this time period.

Maybe it's just me but I would presume that God would know and use this most efficient style long before man would come to a common usage of it... perhaps God's early writings even leading the way for modern man's usage by example.

This requires faith and belief to stand. You seem to like to retreat into the argument that it is God we are talking about after all, and he is supernatural and can make what he wants happen. You are not trying to convince the choir. Many of us here need more than the "God can do as he wills" argument.

By age three, lauguage development is well on it's way.

Here, even before leaving Egypt for Midian, Moses has a detailed conversation with two Hebrew slaves who, I highly doubt, knew any other language besides Hebrew.

And I suppose you believe that after 400 years in Egypt, none of the Israelites spoke the language of their captors. How many African Americans still speak the language of their ancestors and no English?

And yes, it seems perfectly logical that a three year old would not only be able to speak two languages, but would have sufficiently mastered reading two languages to be able to translate both. My ex was the daughter of a German and an American Service member. She lived in Germany until she was about 3 or 4. Then, her father was sent back stateside and she grew up the rest of her life in the US. She could understand rudamentary German later in life, but could not read, nor speak it fluently as an adult and she spoke nothing but German in those first few years. What you are saying makes no flippin sense. Seriously.

[sthack99]

If you would actually bother to read the story, the whole story, it would be healthy for this part of the debate. Your ignorance serves no purpose.

Nor does yours. If you don't agree with something I said, why not elaborate on the topic instead of simply calling someone ignorant without any sort of rebuttal?

[Questatement]

I was just wondering where you came up with the theory that Moses was influenced by his biological mother, is all. Or that she had any hand at raising him (other than nursing him). I'm not disputing that he may have known Hebrew; however, I don't think his biological mother nursing him is evidence of that, nor is him speaking with his fellow Hebrews evidence, since they could easily have learned Egyptian in the hundreds of years they lived there. In fact, I'm sure the Pharaoh would have required it, as I doubt he would have forced his own people to learn Hebrew just to accommodate the Israelites.

Listen, this is all a wonderful side track to what really matters here.

I offered strong evidence that Genesis was originally written in cuneiform and later translated to Biblical Hebrew... giving it the real possibility of being originally written as a first-hand, eye witness account and… talk about something being “written in stone.” Technically clay, but yea.

I offered strong evidence that, since the OT was copied for 1,100 years in its original language without error, addition, or editing from 200 BC till 900 AD, it was likely copied error free for 1300 years from Moses' time (1500 BC) until the earliest extant writings from 200 BC.

Now, I do understand how scary this evidence could be to an avowed atheist so side-tracking is understandable. However, it does not take away from the evidence at hand.

[Questatement]

Oh, and to be back to the OP for a moment.

All of this lends itself to the OT being, and always being, monotheistic with a single deity who is plural in nature who was later fully defined by the coming of Jesus, the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, and the divinely inspired writings of the apostles.

[el ايمان]

You have not offered "strong evidence" that Moses would likely have been capable of translating the ten commandments from Sumerian cuneiform into Ancient Hebrew.

You first said that Moses would have been well educated in Coptic, Egyptian hieroglyphics, Sumerian cuneiform, and Ancient Hebrew because he was a prince, and princes are well educated. You then backtracked and said that his mother acting as a nurse most likely taught Moses Ancient Hebrew as well as Sumerian cuneiform.

You likely realize that your assertions are hideously incorrect, and are therefore avoiding concession by referencing the mysterious ways in which you believe God to act.

[Questatement]

You likely realize that your assertions are hideously incorrect, and are therefore avoiding concession by referencing the mysterious ways in which you believe God to act.

"Mysterious?"

Biblical Hebrew mimicking the exact format of Sumerian cuneiform up until the approximate time that Moses began writing in the present tense?

Seriously, that shouldn't take a genius to figure out.