Quote:
Originally posted by Patrick+--></div><table border='0' align='center' width='95%' cellpadding='0' cellspacing='1'><tr><td>QUOTE (Patrick)</td></tr><tr><td id='QUOTE'><!--QuoteBegin-Orgaelin
How in the name of God can Jesus be descended from David but not be the product of an ordinary sexual encounter between his parents? |
the problem you pose isn't difficult or contradictory in any way.
http://judaism.about.com/library/3_a...ri_descent.htm[/b][/quote]
I rather think it is.
Check out Matthew (1:1-17), which clearly (if somewhat laboriously) dictates a
patrilinear descent from Abraham, through David, right down to "...Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born..."
Why on earth would he list a long line of male-line descendents right through to Jesus, arguing that Jesus was therefore of the seed of Abraham and David? If it were the matrilinear descent that made him of the seed of David, why did he not list that one instead?
It is a plain and outright contradiction with no workable explanation.