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In terms of people who have already been convicted, on an individual basis, yes, the courts do sometimes "ban" people from going to certain places (sex offenders not going near daycare centers, for example). However, in all cases, those "bans" need to be substantially related to the crime the person has committed.
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Where in the constitution does it say that?
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Would you care to explain this statement further? I don't know how to respond to this.
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Am I misreading your signature?