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Old Apr 8, 2008, 10:02 pm   #3 (permalink) (top)
Yasa
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Quote:
Quote by: ryanatau View Post
This supposes that free action and foreknowledge are incompatible. I know I am going to finish typing this sentence yet I still had a free choice not too. Of course I am assuming that free will is actually possible without an omniscient God. If it is possible without a God it is possible with one. Foreknowledge of an event does not imply the lack of free choice nor does the lack of foreknowledge imply free will.
Wrong. An omniscient god, at time A, will know the future of someone's actions. If we call the result of the actions time B, when faced with a choice at time A, there is no contingency to the actions about to occur because the result must be what is foreseen in B. In order for the free will described above to exist, the future of anyone's actions cannot be foreseen by any being.

It's simple logic. If, before an action is performed, someone has access to the future and knows what will happen, then automatically that action cannot be contingent. If it is, then the being who foresees the future may be in fault and thus is not really seeing the future.


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