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Old Jul 28, 2007, 07:57 am   #1 (permalink) (top)
Mia
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Does sex in advertising lead to higher incidences of sex crimes?

This was brought up in another forum, and I contend that it does not. I used the example of Western European nations having more sex in ads and other media than the US, and more relaxed attitudes about sex in general, and they do not have higher incidents of sex crimes.

Someone countered that the laws toward sex crimes are more lenient there too. Age of consent, a difference there would up the number of statutory rape cases.

But crimes like rape - that is defined the same is it not?

So, those of you who live in some other Western Nation with more relaxed attitudes about sex. More sex crimes? Less, the same?

Is your country also more lenient when it comes to defining sex crimes and prosecuting them?


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