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Quote by: Passivist I wonder whether the banning murder would be expressed as "forced" also. The only reason why the prohibition of killing people is not seen as coercion, is because it is a (more) commonly held view. |
I would argue that anything the government does implicitly involves force, but that's just me. That includes banning murder.
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But, to answer the question: I think persuasion will have to do the trick, until a sufficient number of people agree to define slaughter as murder.
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What number is a sufficient number, in your opinion?
And do you think that might makes right?
- Rob