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Old Mar 29, 2007, 02:39 am   #3 (permalink) (top)
StrongHeartsWin
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Quote:
Quote by: Isherwood View Post
A person is both who he is and what is his.
If someone has practically nothing, are they still a person? Would that change any rights? Should it?

I think making ownership of something as part of what a person is, or granting personhood in respects to law (or perceptions), could be used to disenfranchise a lot of people, if not add to prejudice or a certain sense of entitlement over others who have less property (or none).

Sorry if I have pulled this off of T's OP, and for the most part, I agreed with practically everything you said.


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