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Old Oct 15, 2003, 10:00 pm   #7 (permalink) (top)
Waychel
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A person is deemed "incapacitated" only if and for so long as a court of competent jurisdiction has made a finding to that effect, upon certification by two physicians (licensed to practice under the laws of the state where the person is domiciled at the time of the certification). This certification is made by each physician in a written declaration under penalty of perjury.

So, a woman not being totally and entirely incapacitated to a degree where euthenasia could be employed would absolutely not be in question. There is no doubt she is indeed in a vegetative or comatose state, regardless of whatever interpretation has lead her children to think otherwise.

The ability to invoke euthenasia in and of itself can only be done if SHE HERSELF bestowed that right unto her trustee, in some sort of last will or testament. So she appointed her husband as trustee and made sure to include a clause requesting euthenasia upon incapacitation in an irreversable vegetative or comatose state in her trust or whatever.

This isn't an example of a woman being sentenced to death.. its a woman who is without a doubt in a comatose state receiving euthenasia as she not only authorized, but requested, and her children simply objecting to it.


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