[Epistemologist]

I was checking on some debate topics, and this one sparked my interest.

Should "the actions of corporations...be held to the same moral standards as the actions of individuals?" Why or why not?

Make sure to vote in the poll. Give your definitions of the salient terms e.g. "corporations" in your response.

There are obviously differences between corporations and individuals. But they are also considered similar in some respects i.e. they are both relatively unified entities with a dominant will and subsequently representative actions.

Anyway, with respect to the many corporate scandals, I think this is a rather notable issue.