[G. Adams]

Quote by: Forthright BTW, you state you havent looked at the Barnett Formula and you state that per head, Scotland receives more per head than England and Wales. Therefore I would suggest that at this point you dont know what you are talking about becasue the two are intimately related. Initially, upon devolution, your are correct that Scotland received more per head than England or Wales (although not as much as Nortehrn Ireland - a point which is always missed out). This was so that it would give a devolved Scottish Parliament time to organise the funding of devolved powers through its own tax variance powers. The Barnett Formula gradually reduces over time the amount that comes from central UK Government to the Scottish Parliament which in effect means that Scotland gets, in percentage terms, less in public spending than England or Wales (The Barnett Squeeze). The point being that this was meant to ensure "convergance" and by now the amounts per head are at parity. So the argument, whilst having some foundation several years ago (although totally ignoring the reasons for so doing) has absolutely none now and yet it keeps being repeated ad nauseam.

I don't know what I'm talking about? You have just confirmed what I wrote

I have not however looked into the Barnett formula. However, that alone does not prove Scotland gets less than the rest of the UK, as it doesn't tell me how much Scotland was recieving prior to its implementation. It may be that it is a long term attempt to bring Scotland into line with the rest of the UK.

Now you have told me the Barnett formula was implemented at the time of devolution, where Scotland was receiving more per head. The squeeze was aimed at convergence, or as I put it, bringing Scotland into line with the rest of the UK. I didn't know of the Barnett formula, yet I guessed as to it's intention correctly. You however, made it out to be something other that it is, note your statement

The formula is designed to ensure that Scotland gets the same or less than England, not more.

By saying this and failing to add that this Barnett formula would cease upon convergence you are suggesting that Scotland is losing from the Union.

And seeing as this is my thread, and the purpose of it is to discuss whether or not Scotland should become independant, could you kindly keep the bulk of your posts on that topic, not on a tangent that the initial post raises for you.