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Old Sep 30, 2003, 08:15 am   #9 (permalink) (top)
GreatWyrm of Babylon
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Location: Dallas, Texas (Irving)
Posts: 848
You are still killing an innocent if you let the guily go free. The only difference is the claim of it being indirect. But since killing has been related to murderers, it cannot be claimed to be entirely indirect.

Section 8
BTW: I was asking for your opinion, since you are simply letting an artical speak for you.
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