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Old Mar 11, 2004, 07:58 pm   #85 (permalink) (top)
Mia
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The US government didn't profit from slaves that I know of so why does it owe anyone?

The money would come from current taxpayers if they did, which as it has been pointed out here would be millions of people who's ancestors either weren't even here or didn't own slaves, so why would we owe anyone?

The only "fair" way would be for any person who can prove an ancestor of theirs is owed for slave labor to sue the descendant of THAT slave owner, and/or the seller, if it can be proven they inherited money from the slave owner or seller.

How could anything else be fair?

With the Indians it is completely different because it WAS the governmnet who ripped them off. (PS I read the Indians are seeing little of the casino money - it's going right back into white men's pockets)

It's to bad the two acres and a mule were never given at the right time to the right people so they could have all started off on a good foot. The actual slaves certainly deserved to be compensated for their free labor.

BTW, someone implied the slave owners were better off paying wages than "having to support" their slaves. That is ridiculous. Their labor far exceeded the amount of money it cost to let them sleep in a barn and eat the masters leftovers.


"...with like-minded people one cannot discuss. With like-minded people one can only participate in a church service, and you know how I feel about church services." Ayaan Hirsi Ali
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