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Old Sep 27, 2005, 11:31 pm   #7 (permalink) (top)
Scribbler1
Skeptical Patriot
 
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Quote:
Quote by: leftcider
I agree that banning such marriage is unnecessary meddling, but by my definition I don't think it rises to the level of a "breach of human rights". Does anybody know how the European Court defines such rights?
If there is a right to marry in the first place (under any other circumstances), and the marriage is not a health or safety concern to others then forbidding such a marriage IS a breach of fundamental rights. These are two people WAY past the age of consent and there are no concerns regarding inbreeding so no one should be able to say boo to these people.

It's really a non-issue, which was why I find it very surprising that such a law exists at all. I would like to know the rationale behind the drafting of this law originally..
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