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Old May 26, 2005, 03:30 am   #7 (permalink) (top)
rmnunez
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Location: Mexico City
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Would it be "proper" in a formal democracy for the electorate to be told to vote again if they failed to cast their ballots for the outcome favored by those demanding a revote? What would be the effect in Blair's recent re-election if the conservatives and others in Britain called for another election since they disagreed with him getting another term, how about in the US after Bush´s reelection?
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